Percentile can be used to compare a stock to other stocks in a sector as a whole statistical wise but it does not apply to individul shareprice decline. That is measured in percentages. PLEASE show me the actual data that says otherwise. And I don't mean your math that doesn't apply to the argument. I mean a link that proves what you are saying or disproves what I am saying. I can not find it so PLEASE direct me to the Google link. Obviously it exists if you continue to say so right? Why not bury me with real evidence. I will happily concede and admit I am wrong. Too easy. Thanks in advance