RE:reverse split
I understand that but correct me if I'm wrong but your explanation is in favor of the company and not the shareholder? No difference in value you say? Not initially but what happens in your example if the share price doubles from $15 to $30 after the split. My math says the shareholder in your example($30x 500,000 shares would get $15,000000 half of $30,000000 if he still had his original 1,000,000 shares?