RE:RE:RE:RE:RE:RE:RE:RE:Don't know if this has already come up....Incorrect answer?? I am changing nothing. My ORIGINAL argument was 599,700/211,200,000 = 0.002839 then multiply by 100 = 0.2839 % of the prior share float was reduced. This cost $ 15.2 M CANADIAN dollars. That was MY argument from the start. YOUR argument was to "annualize" a buy-back which makes zero logic, since you cannot extrapolate a buy-back over 4 quarters since you're assuming company would repeat this same buy-back to get to over 1 %....this logic makes no sense as maybe they don't do another buy-back for another 2-3 quarters or maybe they do a much larger buy-back so you cannot just multiple 0.2839 % X 4 to get to YOUR 1 %. Point is the company has cut 0.2839 % of the prior float, nothing more, nothing less. JIN
vestor111 wrote: But that is not what you said and you are now changing your argument to fit your incorrect answer.