Why did Steve sell? So Steve reached out to more then one shareholder 11 days prior to dumping millions of shares into the market saying he "isn't selling a single share".
After the sale, the longs explained that SM was actually setting up side deals he wasn't publicly disclosing to let "partners in". We could be so lucky Steve changed his mind (and according to JT it was exactly 9.9% he agreed to dump to the bank).
Steve then announced the bank deal was a day or two away right? This was 3 weeks ago. He missed his deadline and the day he missed it, he decided to spend that day and the following 4 days dumping millions again into the market.
When you longs asked him the second time, did he say he created that missed timeline on purpose to create volume and sell more into the market or did he genuinely mistakenly give that timeline and just decided instead or apologizing to his shareholders for his missed timeline, he would just take advantage of the situation and sell millions more off knowing the price would go down due to him predicting the bank deal wrong?
is there a 3rd option?
let me guess, when the hard questions like this come out it's normally "I'm not doing DD for you" "if you don't like it sell" "you basher" pretty much anything to avoid answering the question. Let's see what excuse is used this time.