Extrapolating data 30 day weighted avg and almost a 60 day weighted avg as only going back to Jan 13th when an extrodinary 6 million shares traded that day with a close of $3.75. Marry all this in with the changes to short positions and see what the cat licks off.
Everyone and the tea lady was discussing those short positions, a small part of them can be explained but not about 13 million of them, well not by me or others who are looking at the trading patterns.
If there's a simple logical explanation please post. And don't say frontrunning an impending deal, the legalities of that haven't changed as far as I know.
Back to work, do like crunching numbers.
Obviously at the moment this post and research is nothing but a mathematical theoretical evaluation of past trading.