So who won the pi$$ing match????As I understand the discussion, the premise is that if INTEL refers to WIN IP in its patents (i.e. builds upon the WIN patent), then some of the royalties that they get (INTEL) should trickle on down to WIN (eventually). In effect, in including references to the WIN patent, perhaps INTEL has in fact conceded that it is defendable and in good standing and perhaps they should be negotiating with WIN regarding royalties (i.e. what is good for the goose should be good for the gander)????????? Did we resolve this issue?