Post by
Hejhog on Apr 12, 2019 9:44am
Consolidation Math Question
So let's say I have about 640k shares and was hoping to hit an arbitrary number of $1, for the sake of this exercise, to sell for $640,000. After a 5 to 1 consolidation, I would have 128,000 shares and would need to get to $5 per share to sell for $640,000. What outcome would you guys say is more likely, getting to $1 with no consolidation or getting to $5 after consolidation. Or are they equal probabilities?
Comment by
IvePaidMyDues on Apr 12, 2019 10:27am
Easy, no chance of either ever scenario ever happening. Readjust your expectation to a high of 7 cents. that might still be too high. Gamble is the non deliverer
Comment by
Hejhog on Apr 12, 2019 11:05am
Ha, true thus far at least.