Post by
PROtrading on Sep 27, 2016 10:42am
To all longs: Why did the CEO transfer over 2M shares?
When you change ownership from yourself to a different entity, a numbered, nameless, corporation, why was this not disclosed? How can longs defend that action?
As of that moment, the CEO no longer owns those shares. They are controlled by the company that can be transferred, assigned etc to another shareholder.
Comment by
Lumberfeverlong on Sep 27, 2016 10:48am
It was diclosed in the proxy circular and it is his 100% owned company. Done for tax planning reasons and no different than him owning the shares personally from a control perspective. If the company sells to a third party, it would have to be disclosed. Stop spreading irrelevant information.
Comment by
LaticelnExile on Sep 27, 2016 10:53am
This post has been removed in accordance with Community Policy
Comment by
LaticelnExile on Sep 27, 2016 10:54am
This post has been removed in accordance with Community Policy