RE:RE:RE:RE:RE:Macroeconomics 101DonFalo@
If bondholders convert into shares, it is an investment in a company. Why do you want to rule this out generally ? Is there any evidence for this assumption that we do not know? Why should the refinery fail to achieve planned profitability? Are there any starting points, information, etc. that we don't know about? I would be very grateful if you could concrete the reasons for your assumptions. Otherwise it's just an opinion, which is of course ok in itself, but you should clearly call it as such...