RE:RE:RE:RE:RE:RE:RE:Corporate PresentationThis is basically my confusion: debt payments should not be included in EBITDA. So I would assume that it contributes 0.5-1mil EBITDA before the earn out payments. However, they give a 1 mil revenue variance, while only giving an EBITDA variance of 500k. How does that work with a company that runs at 90%+ margins? That's why it only makes sense that these numbers take into consideration the earn out payments, but then that wouldn't be a correct definition of EBITDA that they are giving us.